JEE Advanced

JEE (Advanced) 2023
1. INDIAN INSTITUTES OF TECHNOLOGY​

Admission into various undergraduate programs across IITs is carried out through the Joint Entrance Examination (Advanced) [JEE (Advanced)]. The Joint Entrance Examination (Advanced) 2023 [JEE (Advanced) 2023] and the subsequent process of admission to the IITs shall be governed by the some rules, read in conjunction with the Business Rules of the Joint Seat Allocation Authority (JoSAA) 2023 (to be published separately).

Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs) are institutions of national importance established through Acts of Parliament for fostering excellence in education. Over the years, IITs have created a world class educational platform that is dynamically sustained through quality teaching and internationally acclaimed research with excellent infrastructure and the best available minds. The faculty and alumni of IITs occupy key positions in academia and industry throughout the world and continue to make considerable impact on all sections of the society. At present, there are twenty-three IITs across the country.
The primary objectives of IITs are as follows:

  • To create an environment that encourages freedom of thought and pursuit of excellence and inculcates the necessary vision and self-discipline to achieve excellence.
  • To build a solid foundation of scientific and technical knowledge and to prepare competent and motivated engineers and scientists.
  • To kindle an entrepreneurial spirit among the students.
  • To prepare the students to become outstanding professionals and contribute to nation-building.

Through JEE (Advanced), IITs offer admission into undergraduate courses leading to a Bachelor’s, Integrated Master’s or Bachelor-Master Dual Degree in Engineering, Sciences or Architecture. Both Bachelor’s and Master’s degrees are awarded to candidates enrolled in the dual degree programs upon successful completion of the course curriculum. In some of the IITs, students enrolled into the 4-year Bachelor’s program have the option to pursue B.Tech. (Honors) and/or B.Tech. with Minors. Dual Degree students may also pursue a Minor. Further, in some IITs B. Tech. students also have the option to pursue Interdisciplinary Dual Degree, with Bachelors in parent Department and Master’s in some other Department. All the above options require fulfilment of certain academic performance related criteria.

However, not all the listed programs and courses are available in all the institutes.

TYPE OF ACADEMIC PROGRAMS OFFERED AT IITs WITH THEIR MINIMUM DURATION*

* Only those academic programs for which admission is based on JEE (Advanced) examination are shown here. These Institutes also have other academic programs, viz., B.Des., M.Tech., M.Sc., Joint M.Sc.-Ph.D., Joint M.Tech.-Ph.D., M.Des., Ph.D., etc. with different admission procedure and criteria.

PREPARATORY COURSES

  • The seats reserved for \(\)SC\(\), \mathrm{ST}, \mathrm{PwD}
    candidates which remain vacant will be allotted to the candidates of respective categories for admission to a preparatory course of 1-year duration on the basis of relaxed admission criteria.
  • Admission is given to the candidates in the preparatory course provided (i) the seats reserved for the respective category are vacant, (ii) candidates satisfy minimum norms, and (iii) candidates have not accepted a seat in the preparatory course earlier.
  • Selected IITs will run preparatory courses of one-year duration for for $\mathrm{SC}$, $\mathrm{ST}$ and $\mathrm{PwD}$ candidates intended to prepare them to pursue the academic program (for Academic Year 2023-24) to which they have been allocated. At the end of this course, candidates are declared ‘pass’ or ‘fail’. The institute at which one-year preparatory course is run for a candidate may be different from the institute allocated to the candidate for their academic program.
  • On successful completion of the course, the candidates will be offered direct admission in 2023 (Academic Year 2023-24) to the already allotted undergraduate course at the originally allocated IIT.
  • Candidates admitted to the preparatory course are also eligible to appear for JEE (Advanced) 2023 subject to fulfilling other eligibility criteria.
  • Filling-in of choices for preparatory courses is to be completed through the JoSAA online portal.

ZONES, NAMES, LOCATIONS AND ABBREVIATIONS OF THE TWENTY-THREE IITs

* Zonal Coordinating IITs to conduct JEE (Advanced) 2021 examination.

  1. MODE OF EXAMINATION

The JEE (Advanced) 2023 examination will be conducted only in the Computer Based Test (CBT) mode. To attain familiarity with the CBT mode candidates are advised to take mock tests available on the website https://jeeadv.ac.in.

Each candidate will be allotted a computer terminal (node) at the test centre. The welcome login screen of the CBT will display the photograph of the candidate allotted to that particular computer. For login, the candidate will have to enter the JEE (Advanced) 2023 Roll number as login-id and enter the date of birth (in ddmmyyyy format) as password (e.g., if the candidate’s date of birth is 16th September 2002, the password needed to be entered would be 16092002).

After login, the candidate would be able to see the detailed instructions for the examination. Candidates are advised to go through the instructions very carefully regarding the type of questions and marking scheme. At the designated time of the beginning of the examination, the candidates will be able to proceed and see the questions on the computer screen. Candidates will have the option to choose (and also switch/toggle between) his/her preferred language (English or Hindi) during the entire period of the examination.

The keyboard attached to the computer, if any, will be disabled during the entire duration of the examination. Depending on the type of question, the answers to questions can be entered either by clicking on the virtual on-screen keyboard (numeric or otherwise) using the computer mouse or by clicking on the chosen option(s) using the computer mouse. Candidates will have the option to change/modify answers already entered anytime during the entire duration of the examination.

In case the computer/mouse allotted to any candidate malfunctions at any time during the test, the candidate will be immediately allotted another computer system and the time lost due to this will be automatically adjusted in the server so as to give the candidate the full allotted time of 3 hours (180 minutes) [4 hours (240 minutes) for PwD candidates who opted for compensatory time] to answer the questions in each paper.

Each test centre will have representatives of the technical partner administering the examination as well as representatives of one of the IITs. The candidates may approach these representatives, through the invigilator, in case of any difficulty during the examination.

  1. CHOICE OF MEDIUM OF QUESTION PAPER

The question papers will be in both English and Hindi languages. The candidates will have the option to choose (and also switch between) the preferred language anytime during the examination. The English version will prevail in the event of any difference of opinion.

  1. SCHEME OF EXAMINATION
  • JEE (Advanced) 2021 will consist of two question papers: Paper 1 and Paper 2 of three hours duration each. Appearing for both the papers is compulsory.
  • Each question paper will consist of three separate sections, viz., Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics.
  • The question papers will consist of questions designed to test comprehension, reasoning, and analytical ability of candidates.
  • Negative marks may be awarded for incorrect answers for some of the questions. Details of the marking scheme will be provided in the “Instructions to Candidates” section at the time of examination.
  • The candidates must carefully read and adhere to the detailed instructions given in the question papers available at the time of examination.
  • Although sufficient care will be taken for the correctness of questions, in the event that a question(s) needs to be dropped, full marks for that question(s) will be awarded to ALL candidates.
  1. PATTERN OF EXAMINATION

Paper pattern and marking scheme of JEE (Advanced) 2021

PAPER – I

SECTION 1

  • This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
  • Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
  • For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.

Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:

  • Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
  • Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e., the question is unanswered).
  • Negative Marks : -1 In all other cases.

SECTION 2

  • This section contains THREE (03) question stems.
  • There are TWO (02) questions corresponding to each question stem.
  • The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
  • For each question, enter the correct numerical value corresponding to the answer in the designated place, using the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad.
  • If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places.

Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:

  • Full Marks : +2 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered at the designated place.
  • Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.

SECTION 3

  • This section contains SIX (06) questions.
  • Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
  • For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).

Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:

  • Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen.
  • Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
  • Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both of which are correct.
  • Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen, and it is a correct option.
  • Zero Marks : 0 If unanswered.
  • Negative Marks: -2 In all other cases.

SECTION 4

  • This section contains THREE (03) questions.
  • The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER.
  • For each question, enter the correct integer corresponding to the answer using the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer.

Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:

  • Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct integer is entered.
  • Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.

PAPER – II

SECTION 1

  • This section contains SIX (06) questions.
  • Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
  • For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).

Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:

  • Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen.
  • Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
  • Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both of which are correct.
  • Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen, and it is a correct option.
  • Zero Marks : 0 If unanswered.
  • Negative Marks: -2 In all other cases.

SECTION 2

  • This section contains THREE (03) question stems.
  • There are TWO (02) questions corresponding to each question stem.
  • The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
  • For each question, enter the correct numerical value corresponding to the answer in the designated place using the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad.
  • If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to two decimal places.

Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:

  • Full Marks : +2 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered at the designated place; Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.

SECTION 3

  • This section contains TWO (02) paragraphs. Based on each paragraph, there are TWO (02) questions.
  • Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
  • For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.

Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:

  • Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
  • Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e., the question is unanswered); Negative Marks : -1 In all other cases.

SECTION 4

  • This section contains THREE (03) questions.
  • The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER.
  • For each question, enter the correct integer corresponding to the answer using the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer.

Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:

  • Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct integer is entered.
  • Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
CHEMISTRY Physical Chemistry General topics Concept of atoms and molecules; Dalton’s atomic theory; Mole concept; Chemical formulae; Balanced chemical equations; Calculations (based on mole concept) involving common oxidation-reduction, neutralisation, and displacement reactions; Concentration in terms of mole fraction, molarity, molality and normality. Gaseous and liquid states Absolute scale of temperature, ideal gas equation; Deviation from ideality, van der Waals equation; Kinetic theory of gases, average, root mean square and most probable velocities and their relation with temperature; Law of partial pressures; Vapour pressure; Diffusion of gases. Atomic structure and chemical bonding Bohr model, spectrum of hydrogen atom, quantum numbers; Wave-particle duality, de Broglie hypothesis; Uncertainty principle; Qualitative quantum mechanical picture of hydrogen atom, shapes of s, p and d orbitals; Electronic configurations of elements (up to atomic number 36); Aufbau principle; Pauli’s exclusion principle and Hund’s rule; Orbital overlap and covalent bond; Hybridisation involving s, p and d orbitals only; Orbital energy diagrams for homonuclear diatomic species; Hydrogen bond; Polarity in molecules, dipole moment (qualitative aspects only); VSEPR model and shapes of molecules (linear, angular, triangular, square planar, pyramidal, square pyramidal, trigonal bipyramidal, tetrahedral and octahedral). Energetics First law of thermodynamics; Internal energy, work and heat, pressure-volume work; Enthalpy, Hess’s law; Heat of reaction, fusion and vapourization; Second law of thermodynamics; Entropy; Free energy; Criterion of spontaneity. Chemical equilibrium Law of mass action; Equilibrium constant, Le Chatelier’s principle (effect of concentration, temperature, and pressure); Significance of ΔG and ΔG0 in chemical equilibrium; Solubility product, common ion effect, pH and buffer solutions; Acids and bases (Bronsted and Lewis concepts); Hydrolysis of salts. Electrochemistry Electrochemical cells and cell reactions; Standard electrode potentials; Nernst equation and its relation to ΔG; Electrochemical series, emf of galvanic cells; Faraday’s laws of electrolysis; Electrolytic conductance, specific, equivalent, and molar conductivity, Kohlrausch’s law; Concentration cells. Chemical kinetics Rates of chemical reactions; Order of reactions; Rate constant; First order reactions; Temperature dependence of rate constant (Arrhenius equation). Solid state Classification of solids, crystalline state, seven crystal systems (cell parameters a, b, c, α, β, γ), close packed structure of solids (cubic), packing in fcc, bcc and hcp lattices; Nearest neighbours, ionic radii, simple ionic compounds, point defects. Solutions Raoult’s law; Molecular weight determination from lowering of vapour pressure, elevation of boiling point and depression of freezing point. Surface chemistry Elementary concepts of adsorption (excluding adsorption isotherms); Colloids: types, methods of preparation and general properties; Elementary ideas of emulsions, surfactants, and micelles (only definitions and examples). Nuclear chemistry Radioactivity: isotopes and isobars; Properties of α, β and γ rays; Kinetics of radioactive decay (decay series excluded), carbon dating; Stability of nuclei with respect to proton-neutron ratio; Brief discussion on fission and fusion reactions. Inorganic chemistry Isolation/preparation and properties of the following non-metals Boron, silicon, nitrogen, phosphorus, oxygen, sulphur and halogens; Properties of allotropes of carbon (only diamond and graphite), phosphorus and sulphur. Preparation and properties of the following compounds Oxides, peroxides, hydroxides, carbonates, bicarbonates, chlorides and sulphates of sodium, potassium, magnesium and calcium; Boron: diborane, boric acid and borax; Aluminium: alumina, aluminium chloride and alums; Carbon: oxides and oxyacid (carbonic acid); Silicon: silicones, silicates and silicon carbide; Nitrogen: oxides, oxyacids and ammonia; Phosphorus: oxides, oxyacids (phosphorus acid, phosphoric acid) and phosphine; Oxygen: ozone and hydrogen peroxide; Sulphur: hydrogen sulphide, oxides, sulphurous acid, sulphuric acid and sodium thiosulphate; Halogens: hydrohalic acids, oxides and oxyacids of chlorine, bleaching powder; Xenon fluorides. Transition elements (3d series) Definition, general characteristics, oxidation states and their stabilities, colour (excluding the details of electronic transitions) and calculation of spin-only magnetic moment; Coordination compounds: nomenclature of mononuclear coordination compounds, cis-trans and ionisation isomerisms, hybridization and geometries of mononuclear coordination compounds (linear, tetrahedral, square planar and octahedral). Preparation and properties of the following compounds Oxides and chlorides of tin and lead; Oxides, chlorides and sulphates of Fe2+, Cu2+ and Zn2+; Potassium permanganate, potassium dichromate, silver oxide, silver nitrate, silver thiosulphate. Ores and minerals Commonly occurring ores and minerals of iron, copper, tin, lead, magnesium, aluminium, zinc, and silver. Extractive metallurgy Chemical principles and reactions only (industrial details excluded); Carbon reduction method (iron and tin); Self reduction method (copper and lead); Electrolytic reduction method (magnesium and aluminium); Cyanide process (silver and gold). Principles of qualitative analysis Groups I to V (only Ag+, Hg2+, Cu2+, Pb2+, Bi3+, Fe3+, Cr3+, Al3+, Ca2+, Ba2+, Zn2+, Mn2+ and Mg2+); Nitrate, halides (excluding fluoride), sulphate and sulphide.   Organic chemistry Concepts Hybridisation of carbon; σ and π-bonds; Shapes of simple organic molecules; Structural and geometrical isomerism; Optical isomerism of compounds containing up to two asymmetric centres, (R,S and E,Z nomenclature excluded); IUPAC nomenclature of simple organic compounds (only hydrocarbons, mono-functional and bi-functional compounds); Conformations of ethane and butane (Newman projections); Resonance and hyperconjugation; Keto-enoltautomerism; Determination of empirical and molecular formulae of simple compounds (only combustion method); Hydrogen bonds: definition and their effects on physical properties of alcohols and carboxylic acids; Inductive and resonance effects on acidity and basicity of organic acids and bases; Polarity and inductive effects in alkyl halides; Reactive intermediates produced during homolytic and heterolytic bond cleavage; Formation, structure and stability of carbocations, carbanions and free radicals. Preparation, properties and reactions of alkanes Homologous series, physical properties of alkanes (melting points, boiling points and density); Combustion and halogenation of alkanes; Preparation of alkanes by Wurtz reaction and decarboxylation reactions. Preparation, properties and reactions of alkenes and alkynes Physical properties of alkenes and alkynes (boiling points, density and dipole moments); Acidity of alkynes; Acid catalysed hydration of alkenes and alkynes (excluding the stereochemistry of addition and elimination); Reactions of alkenes with KMnO4 and ozone; Reduction of alkenes and alkynes; Preparation of alkenes and alkynes by elimination reactions; Electrophilic addition reactions of alkenes with X2, HX, HOX and H2O (X=halogen); Addition reactions of alkynes; Metal acetylides. Reactions of benzene Structure and aromaticity; Electrophilic substitution reactions: halogenation, nitration, sulphonation, Friedel-Crafts alkylation, and acylation; Effect of o-, m- and p-directing groups in monosubstituted benzenes. Phenols Acidity, electrophilic substitution reactions (halogenation, nitration, and sulphonation); Reimer-Tieman reaction, Kolbe reaction. Characteristic reactions of the following (including those mentioned above) Alkyl halides: rearrangement reactions of alkyl carbocation, Grignard reactions, nucleophilic substitution reactions; Alcohols: esterification, dehydration and oxidation, reaction with sodium, phosphorus halides, ZnCl2/concentrated HCl, conversion of alcohols into aldehydes and ketones; Ethers: Preparation by Williamson’s Synthesis; Aldehydes and Ketones: oxidation, reduction, oxime and hydrazone formation; aldol condensation, Perkin reaction; Cannizzaro reaction; haloform reaction and nucleophilic addition reactions (Grignard addition); Carboxylic acids: formation of esters, acid chlorides and amides, ester hydrolysis; Amines: basicity of substituted anilines and aliphatic amines, preparation from nitro compounds, reaction with nitrous acid, azo coupling reaction of diazonium salts of aromatic amines, Sandmeyer and related reactions of diazonium salts; carbylamine reaction; Haloarenes: nucleophilic aromatic substitution in haloarenes and substituted haloarenes (excluding Benzyne mechanism and Cine substitution). Carbohydrates Classification; mono- and di-saccharides (glucose and sucrose); Oxidation, reduction, glycoside formation and hydrolysis of sucrose. Amino acids and peptides General structure (only primary structure for peptides) and physical properties. Properties and uses of some important polymers Natural rubber, cellulose, nylon, teflon and PVC. Practical organic chemistry Detection of elements (N, S, halogens); Detection and identification of the following functional groups: hydroxyl (alcoholic and phenolic), carbonyl (aldehyde and ketone), carboxyl, amino and nitro; Chemical methods of separation of mono- functional organic compounds from binary mixtures. MATHEMATICS   Algebra Algebra of complex numbers, addition, multiplication, conjugation, polar representation, properties of modulus and principal argument, triangle inequality, cube roots of unity, geometric interpretations. Quadratic equations with real coefficients, relations between roots and coefficients, formation of quadratic equations with given roots, symmetric functions of roots. Arithmetic, geometric and harmonic progressions, arithmetic, geometric and harmonic means, sums of finite arithmetic and geometric progressions, infinite geometric series, sums of squares and cubes of the first n natural numbers. Logarithms and their properties. Permutations and combinations, binomial theorem for a positive integral index, properties of binomial coefficients. Matrices Matrices as a rectangular array of real numbers, equality of matrices, addition, multiplication by a scalar and product of matrices, transpose of a matrix, determinant of a square matrix of order up to three, inverse of a square matrix of order up to three, properties of these matrix operations, diagonal, symmetric and skew-symmetric matrices and their properties, solutions of simultaneous linear equations in two or three variables. Probability Addition and multiplication rules of probability, conditional probability, Bayes Theorem, independence of events, computation of probability of events using permutations and combinations. Trigonometry Trigonometric functions, their periodicity and graphs, addition and subtraction formulae, formulae involving multiple and sub-multiple angles, general solution of trigonometric equations. Relations between sides and angles of a triangle, sine rule, cosine rule, half-angle formula and the area of a triangle, inverse trigonometric functions (principal value only). Analytical geometry Two dimensions: Cartesian coordinates, distance between two points, section formulae, shift of origin. Equation of a straight line in various forms, angle between two lines, distance of a point from a line; Lines through the point of intersection of two given lines, equation of the bisector of the angle between two lines, concurrency of lines; Centroid, orthocentre, incentre and circumcentre of a triangle. Equation of a circle in various forms, equations of tangent, normal and chord. Parametric equations of a circle, intersection of a circle with a straight line or a circle, equation of a circle through the points of intersection of two circles and those of a circle and a straight line. Equations of a parabola, ellipse and hyperbola in standard form, their foci, directrices and eccentricity, parametric equations, equations of tangent and normal. Locus problems. Three dimensions: Direction cosines and direction ratios, equation of a straight line in space, equation of a plane, distance of a point from a plane. Differential calculus Real valued functions of a real variable, into, onto and one-to-one functions, sum, difference, product and quotient of two functions, composite functions, absolute value, polynomial, rational, trigonometric, exponential and logarithmic functions. Limit and continuity of a function, limit and continuity of the sum, difference, product and quotient of two functions, L’Hospital rule of evaluation of limits of functions. Even and odd functions, inverse of a function, continuity of composite functions, intermediate value property of continuous functions. Derivative of a function, derivative of the sum, difference, product and quotient of two functions, chain rule, derivatives of polynomial, rational, trigonometric, inverse trigonometric, exponential and logarithmic functions. Derivatives of implicit functions, derivatives up to order two, geometrical interpretation of the derivative, tangents and normals, increasing and decreasing functions, maximum and minimum values of a function, Rolle’s theorem and Lagrange’s mean value theorem. Integral calculus Integration as the inverse process of differentiation, indefinite integrals of standard functions, definite integrals and their properties, fundamental theorem of integral calculus. Integration by parts, integration by the methods of substitution and partial fractions, application of definite integrals to the determination of areas involving simple curves. Formation of ordinary differential equations, solution of homogeneous differential equations, separation of variables method, linear first order differential equations. Vectors Addition of vectors, scalar multiplication, dot and cross products, scalar triple products and their geometrical interpretations. PHYSICS General Units and dimensions, dimensional analysis; least count, significant figures; Methods of measurement and error analysis for physical quantities pertaining to the following experiments: Experiments based on using Vernier calipers and screw gauge (micrometer), Determination of g using simple pendulum, Young’s modulus by Searle’s method, Specific heat of a liquid using calorimeter, focal length of a concave mirror and a convex lens using u-v method, Speed of sound using resonance column, Verification of Ohm’s law using voltmeter and ammeter, and specific resistance of the material of a wire using meter bridge and post office box. Mechanics Kinematics in one and two dimensions (Cartesian coordinates only), projectiles; Uniform circular motion; Relative velocity. Newton’s laws of motion; Inertial and uniformly accelerated frames of reference; Static and dynamic friction; Kinetic and potential energy; Work and power; Conservation of linear momentum and mechanical energy. Systems of particles; Centre of mass and its motion; Impulse; Elastic and inelastic collisions. Law of gravitation; Gravitational potential and field; Acceleration due to gravity; Motion of planets and satellites in circular orbits; Escape velocity. Rigid body, moment of inertia, parallel and perpendicular axes theorems, moment of inertia of uniform bodies with simple geometrical shapes; Angular momentum; Torque; Conservation of angular momentum; Dynamics of rigid bodies with fixed axis of rotation; Rolling without slipping of rings, cylinders and spheres; Equilibrium of rigid bodies; Collision of point masses with rigid bodies. Linear and angular simple harmonic motions. Hooke’s law, Young’s modulus. Pressure in a fluid; Pascal’s law; Buoyancy; Surface energy and surface tension, capillary rise; Viscosity (Poiseuille’s equation excluded), Stoke’s law; Terminal velocity, Streamline flow, equation of continuity, Bernoulli’s theorem and its applications. Wave motion (plane waves only), longitudinal and transverse waves, superposition of waves; Progressive and stationary waves; Vibration of strings and air columns; Resonance; Beats; Speed of sound in gases; Doppler effect (in sound). Thermal physics Thermal expansion of solids, liquids and gases; Calorimetry, latent heat; Heat conduction in one dimension; Elementary concepts of convection and radiation; Newton’s law of cooling; Ideal gas laws; Specific heats (Cv and Cp for monoatomic and diatomic gases); Isothermal and adiabatic processes, bulk modulus of gases; Equivalence of heat and work; First law of thermodynamics and its applications (only for ideal gases); Blackbody radiation: absorptive and emissive powers; Kirchhoff’s law; Wien’s displacement law, Stefan’s law. Electricity and magnetism Coulomb’s law; Electric field and potential; Electrical potential energy of a system of point charges and of electrical dipoles in a uniform electrostatic field; Electric field lines; Flux of electric field; Gauss’s law and its application in simple cases, such as, to find field due to infinitely long straight wire, uniformly charged infinite plane sheet and uniformly charged thin spherical shell. Capacitance; Parallel plate capacitor with and without dielectrics; Capacitors in series and parallel; Energy stored in a capacitor. Electric current; Ohm’s law; Series and parallel arrangements of resistances and cells; Kirchhoff’s laws and simple applications; Heating effect of current. Biot–Savart’s law and Ampere’s law; Magnetic field near a current-carrying straight wire, along the axis of a circular coil and inside a long straight solenoid; Force on a moving charge and on a current-carrying wire in a uniform magnetic field. Magnetic moment of a current loop; Effect of a uniform magnetic field on a current loop; Moving coil galvanometer, voltmeter, ammeter and their conversions. Electromagnetic induction: Faraday’s law, Lenz’s law; Self and mutual inductance; RC, LR and LC circuits with d.c. and a.c. sources. Optics Rectilinear propagation of light; Reflection and refraction at plane and spherical surfaces; Total internal reflection; Deviation and dispersion of light by a prism; Thin lenses; Combinations of mirrors and thin lenses; Magnification. Wave nature of light: Huygen’s principle, interference limited to Young’s double- slit experiment. Modern physics Atomic nucleus; α, β and γ radiations; Law of radioactive decay; Decay constant; Half-life and mean life; Binding energy and its calculation; Fission and fusion processes; Energy calculation in these processes. Photoelectric effect; Bohr’s theory of hydrogen-like atoms; Characteristic and continuous X-rays, Moseley’s law; de Broglie wavelength of matter waves. ARCHITECTURE APTITUDE TEST   Freehand drawing This would comprise of simple drawing depicting the total object in its right form and proportion, surface texture, relative location and details of its component parts in appropriate scale. Common domestic or day-to-day life usable objects like furniture, equipment, etc., from memory. Geometrical drawing Exercises in geometrical drawing containing lines, angles, triangles, quadrilaterals, polygons, circles, etc. Study of plan (top view), elevation (front or side views) of simple solid objects like prisms, cones, cylinders, cubes, splayed surface holders, etc. Three-dimensional perception Understanding and appreciation of three-dimensional forms with building elements, colour, volume and orientation. Visualization through structuring objects in memory. Imagination and aesthetic sensitivity Composition exercise with given elements. Context mapping. Creativity check through innovative uncommon test with familiar objects. Sense of colour grouping or application. Architectural awareness General interest and awareness of famous architectural creations – both national and international, places and personalities (architects, designers, etc.) in the related domain.
  1. ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA FOR INDIAN NATIONALS FOR APPEARING FOR JEE (ADVANCED) 2021

All the candidates must simultaneously fulfil each and every one of the following five criteria to appear for JEE (Advanced) 2023.

Criterion 1 – Performance in JEE (Main) 2023: Candidates should be among the top $2,50,000^{*}$ successful candidates (including all categories) in B.E./B.Tech. Paper of JEE (Main) 2023.

The percentages of various categories of candidates to be shortlisted are: $10 \%$ for $\mathrm{GEN}$ -$\mathrm{EWS}$, $27 \%$ for $\mathrm{OBC}$-$\mathrm{NCL}$, $15 \%$ for $\mathrm{SC}$, $7.5 \%$ for $\mathrm{ST}$ and the remaining $40.5 \%$ is OPEN for all. Within each of these five categories, $5 \%$ horizontal reservation is available for $\mathrm{PwD}$ candidates.

The following table shows the order to be followed while choosing top $2,50,000^{*}$ candidates in various categories based on the performance in B.E./B.Tech. Paper of JEE (Main) 2023.

Category-wise distribution of top $2,50,000^{*}$ candidates (Criterion 1)

* The total number of candidates may be slightly greater than 2,50,000 in the presence of “tied” ranks / scores in any category.

Criterion 2 – Age limit: Candidates should have been born on or after October 1, 1997. Five years age relaxation is given to $\mathrm{SC}$, $\mathrm{ST}$ and $\mathrm{PWD}$ candidates, i.e., these candidates should have been born on or after October 1, 1992.

Criterion 3 – Number of attempts: A candidate can attempt JEE (Advanced) maximum of two times in two consecutive years.

Criterion 4 – Appearance in Class XII (or equivalent) examination*: A candidate should have appeared for the Class XII (or equivalent) examination for the first time in either 2023 or 2023 with the subjects Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics. Candidates who had appeared in Class XII (or equivalent) examination, for the first time in 2020 or earlier, are NOT eligible to appear in JEE (Advanced) 2023.

* By appearance in Class XII (or equivalent) examination, it is meant that the board concerned declared the result of a particular candidate for that year irrespective of whether or not an examination was conducted. It will be considered as an appearance even if the result of a particular candidate got withheld.

However, if the examination Board of Class XII (or equivalent) declared the results for the academic year 2019-20 after June 2020, then the candidates of that board who appeared for their Class XII exam in 2020 are also eligible to appear in JEE (Advanced) 2023, provided they meet all the other eligibility criteria. In case, the examination Board of Class XII (or equivalent) declared the results for the academic year 2019-20 before June 2020 but the result of a particular candidate was withheld, then the candidate will not be eligible to appear in JEE (Advanced) 2023.

Relaxation of Criteria 1 to 4 as a special case for JEE (Advanced) 2023:

Candidates who successfully registered for JEE (Advanced) 2021 but were absent in both the papers, i.e. Paper 1 and Paper 2, of JEE (Advanced) 2021 are eligible to appear for JEE (Advanced) 2023 and do not need to fulfil Criteria 1 to 4 above. However, they must successfully register for the JEE (Advanced) 2023 in the online registration portal and pay the registration fee. Further, these candidates would be considered in addition to and not as part of the total number of candidates who would qualify from JEE (Main) 2023 for appearing in JEE (Advanced) 2023. This is a one-time measure valid only for JEE (Advanced) 2023. These candidates can confirm their eligibility for appearing in JEE (Advanced) 2023 by visiting the official website (https://jeeadv.ac.in) and filling in the requisite information. A Unique Reference Code (URC) will be provided to the eligible candidates, which will be required during the registration process; instructions for the same shall be provided on the official website at the time of registration.

Criterion 5 – Earlier admission at IITs: A candidate should NOT have been admitted to an IIT irrespective of whether or not the candidate continued in the program OR accepted a seat at an IIT by reporting “online” / at a “reporting centre” through JoSAA in the past. Candidates whose admission to IITs  was cancelled (for whatever reason) after joining any IIT are also NOT eligible to appear for JEE (Advanced) $2023$.

Candidates who have been admitted to a preparatory course in any of the IITs for the first time in 2021 can appear in JEE (Advanced) 2023.

The candidates who were allocated a seat in an IIT through JoSAA 2021 but (i) did not report “online”/ at any “reporting centre” OR, (ii) withdrew before the last round of seat allotment, OR, (iii) had their seat cancelled (for whatever reason) before the last round of seat allotment for IITs, are eligible to appear for JEE (Advanced) 2023.

However, in all of the above cases, the candidate is also required to fulfil the conditions mentioned from Criterion 1 to Criterion 4.

Eligibility criteria for foreign national candidates can be found at: https://jeeadv.ac.in/foreign.php

RESERVATION OF SEATS

Indian nationals belonging to certain categories are admitted under the seats reserved for them in accordance with the rules prescribed by the Government of India. The categories and the extent of reservation are as follows:

– General Category belonging to Economically Weaker Section ($\mathrm{GEN}$ -$\mathrm{EWS}$) – $10 \%$ of seats in every course. The benefit of reservation will be given only to those General category candidates who satisfy the condition given in the OM No. 20013/01/2018-BC-II dated January 17, 2019 issued by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.

– Other Backward Classes belonging to the Non-Creamy Layer ($\mathrm{OBC}$-$\mathrm{NCL}$) – $27 \%$ of seats in every course. $\mathrm{OBCs}$ should be listed in the current updated central list of $\mathrm{OBC}$s (http://www.ncbc.nic.in). OBCs present in the state list but not covered in the central list of $\mathrm{OBCs}$ (as per the list in http://www.ncbc.nic.in) are not eligible to claim the reservation. The criteria for Non-Creamy Layer ($\mathrm{OBC}$-$\mathrm{NCL}$) will be as per the notification of Government of India.

Candidates belonging to the creamy layer of $\mathrm{OBC}$ are NOT entitled for reservation. Such candidates are treated as belonging to the general ($\mathrm{GEN}), i.e. unreserved category, and they will be eligible only for the $\mathrm{OPEN} seats – the seats for which all candidates are eligible.

– Scheduled Caste ($\mathrm{SC}$) – $15 \%$ of seats in every course.

– Scheduled Tribe ($\mathrm{ST}$) – $7.5 \%$ of seats in every course.

The benefit of reservation will be given only to those castes and tribes that are mentioned in the respective central list of corresponding states published by the Government of India (websites: http://socialjustice.nic.in and https://ncst.nic.in).

– Persons with Disability ($\mathrm{PwD}$) – $5 \%$ seats in each of $\mathrm{OPEN}$, $\mathrm{GEN}$-$\mathrm{EWS}$, $\mathrm{OBC}$-$\mathrm{NCL}$, $\mathrm{SC}$ and $\mathrm{ST}$ category seats.

Candidates with at least $40 \%$ impairment irrespective of the type of disability i.e., locomotor, visual or SEVERE dyslexic shall be eligible for the benefits of $\mathrm{PwD}$ sub-category.

Leprosy-cured candidates who are otherwise fit to pursue the courses are also included in this sub-category.

Candidates belonging to the $\mathrm{GEN}$-$\mathrm{EWS}$, $\mathrm{OBC}$-$\mathrm{NCL}$, $\mathrm{SC}$, $\mathrm{ST}$ and $\mathrm{PwD}$ categories/sub-categories will be declared as qualified on the basis of a relaxed criterion.

Unfilled seats, if any, reserved under $\mathrm{GEN}$-$\mathrm{EWS}$ and $\mathrm{OBC}$-$\mathrm{NCL}$ category will be dereserved to OPEN category seats, subject to availability of further rounds of counselling. However, seats remaining vacant under the $\mathrm{SC}$ and $\mathrm{ST}$ categories shall NOT be de-reserved to any other category. The reservation for $\mathrm{PwD}$ candidates is horizontal and hence, unfilled seats if any, will be de-reserved to the respective categories i.e., unfilled $\mathrm{SC}$-$\mathrm{PwD}$ seats will be converted to the $\mathrm{SC}$ category seats and so on. This will again be subject to availability of further rounds of counselling.

The category of a candidate as entered in the database, which will be made available by the JEE Apex Board (which conducts JEE (Main) 2023 examination), will be final and shall remain same in JEE (Advanced) 2023 examination and requests for change of category will NOT be entertained.

Candidates must note that the benefit of reservation will be given to them subject to verification of documents. If it is discovered at any stage that a candidate has used a false / fake / incorrect document, or has furnished false, incorrect or incomplete information, in order to avail the benefit of reservation, then such a candidate shall be excluded from all admission processes. In case such a candidate has already been given admission, the admission shall stand cancelled.

DEFENCE SERVICE CANDIDATES

Defence Service (DS) candidates are children of defence / paramilitary personnel killed or permanently disabled in action during war or peacetime operations. Two seats are available for preferential allotment in each Institute for DS candidates. To avail this preferential allotment, a DS candidate must be in the Common Rank List of JEE (Advanced) 2023.

FOREIGN NATIONALS

Candidates who are NOT citizens of India (by birth or naturalized) and/or are OCI/PIO card holders are treated as foreign nationals [Reference: (The Gazette of India) No. CG-DL-E04032021-225647, dated: $4^{\text {th }}$ March, 2021 [S.O. 1050(E)]]. Seats allotted to such foreign national candidates are supernumerary with a cap of $10 \%$ of total number of seats in every course. These candidates are outside the ambit of reservation of seats under the $\mathrm{GEN}$-$\mathrm{EWS}$, $\mathrm{OBC}$-$\mathrm{NCL}$, $\mathrm{SC}$, $\mathrm{ST}$ and $\mathrm{PwD}$ categories / sub-categories as specified herein.

The foreign national candidates who have studied or are studying abroad at 10 level or equivalent at the time of registering for JEE (Advanced) 2023 are NOT required to write JEE (Main) 2023 and may register for JEE (Advanced) 202 directly subject to fulfilment of other eligibility criteria (for details refer to https://jeeadv.ac.in/foreign.php).

The foreign national candidates who have studied or are studying in India at 10+2 level or equivalent are required to write JEE (Main) 2023 and qualify for JEE (Advanced) 2023 under the OPEN category.

The relevant information for foreign nationals is available at the following link: https://jeeadv.ac.in/foreign.php

SEATS FOR FEMALE CANDIDATES

Following the directions of the Ministry of Education, Government of India (Reference: F.No.35-8/2017-TS.III dated $30^{\text {th }}$ October, 2017), and the decision taken by IIT Council, supernumerary seats have been created for female candidates for improving the gender balance in the undergraduate programs in IITs. These supernumerary seats will be offered (a) to only those female candidates who are declared qualified in JEE (Advanced) 2023, and, (b) strictly based on the performance in JEE (Advanced) 2023.

The number of supernumerary seats in various programs will be decided by individual IITs ensuring that every institute has at least $20 \%$ female enrolment in undergraduate program(s). The reservation policy as per Government of India norms as existing at present will be applicable to these supernumerary seats as well. The detailed procedure for implementation of the above shall be set out in the Business Rules of JoSAA 2023 (will be made available on https://josaa.nic.in).

SCHEDULE OF JEE (ADVANCED) 2022 The examination consists of two papers (Paper 1 and Paper 2) of three hours duration each. Appearing in both the papers is compulsory. The examination is scheduled as mentioned below:
Date of Examination To be notified
Paper 1 09:00 IST to 12:00 IST
Paper 2 14:30 IST to 17:30 IST
It may be noted that the examination date will remain unchanged even if it is declared a public holiday. All $\mathrm{PwD}$ candidates having benchmark disabilities as applicable, are eligible for one-hour compensatory time for each paper (i.e., for these candidates the end time will be 13:00 IST for Paper 1 and 18:30 IST for Paper 2). They must, however, fill in the requisite form (see Annexure-II: CERTIFICATE FORMATS) during registration for availing the compensatory time and/or availing the services of a scribe (amanuensis).

REGISTRATION FOR JEE (ADVANCED) 2023

Eligibility: All Indian nationals must simultaneously satisfy each and every one of the five eligibility criteria. Registration will be cancelled if, at a later date, it is found that the candidate does not meet any of these five eligibility criteria.

Registration Portal: Candidates MUST register for appearing for JEE (Advanced) 2023. Registration is to be done only through the online registration portal where detailed instructions for registration will be provided.

For online registrationhttps://jeeadv.ac.in
Online registration beginsTo be Notified
Online registration closesTo be Notified
Last date for fee payment for registered candidatesTo be Notified

Registration Procedure:
The steps for registration are given in Procedure  and Procedure B below. The candidates who have qualified through JEE (Main) 2023, have to carry out the steps given in Procedure . The candidates who are eligible to appear directly for JEE (Advanced) 2023 under the one-time measure, have to carry out the steps given in Procedure B below. The candidates who are eligible to appear directly for JEE (Advanced) 2023 by the one-time measure and also qualify through JEE (Main) 2021 must register for JEE (Advanced) 2023 following steps given in Procedure .

Procedure A: The candidate will first login with the JEE (Main) 2023 credentials. The following three steps are to be carried out to complete the registration process.

Step-1: After login, provide the basic data and the choices of the cities for the examination. The candidate will have the option of adding an additional mobile phone number and an additional email ID, in addition to the number(s) already provided during JEE (Main) 2023 registration. Please note that all the correspondences regarding JEE (Advanced) 2023 will be sent to the registered mobile number by SMS and to the registered email ID by email. Candidates are therefore, advised to ensure that the correct mobile number and email address are entered by them.

Step-2: Upload the scanned copies of all requisite documents

Step-3: Pay registration fee. Registration fee is NEITHER refundable NOR transferable.

Procedure B: The candidates who are eligible to appear directly for JEE (Advanced) 2021 under the one-time measure, will have to login using the JEE (Main) 2021 credentials. They have to carry out the following three steps to successfully complete the registration process.

Step-1: After login using the JEE (Main) 2021 credentials, provide the basic data and the choices of the cities for the examination. The candidate will have the option of providing an additional mobile number and an additional email ID, in addition to the number(s) already provided during JEE (Main) 2021 registration. Please note that all the correspondences regarding JEE (Advanced) 2023 will be sent to the registered mobile number by SMS and to the registered email ID by email. Candidates are therefore, advised to ensure that the correct mobile number and email address are entered by them. Additionally, the candidates will have to enter the URC provided to them along with the required documents as per the instructions which shall appear on the registration portal. If any such candidate has appeared for JEE (Main) 2023 then the candidate must enter the JEE (Main) 2023 Application Number.

Step-2: Upload the scanned copies of all requisite documents afresh.

Step-3: Pay registration. Registration fee is NEITHER refundable NOR transferable.

Foreign national candidates may check the link: https://jeeadv.ac.in/foreign.php

REGISTRATION FEE FOR JEE (ADVANCED) 2023

Candidates desirous of appearing for JEE (Advanced) 2023 must pay the registration fee as mentioned in the following table.

# Or equivalent in $\mathrm{INR}$

– The registration fee shown above DOES NOT INCLUDE service charges, processing fees and any other charges that the payment gateway/banks may levy. Registration fee once paid is non-refundable and non-transferable. All candidates have to reach the examination centre at their own expense and have to make their own arrangements to appear for the examination.

– Detailed instructions related to the payment of registration fee will be provided at the time of JEE (Advanced) 2023 registration on the online registration portal.

DOCUMENTS REQUIRED FOR REGISTRATION

Given below is a list of documents/certificates whose scanned copies are to be uploaded at the time of online registration for JEE (Advanced) 2023.

All candidates

(1) Class X certificate if the date of birth is mentioned in it OR birth certificate.

(2) Class XII (or equivalent examination) certificate [for those who appeared for this examination in 2021 or whose Board declared the Class XII (or equivalent examination) result after June 2020]. If mark sheet / pass certificate of Class XII (or Equivalent examination) for 2023 is available then it must be uploaded.

(3) If the name is not the same as in the Class X/ birth certificate, gazette notification showing the change of name.

For Candidates seeking admission under the $\mathrm{GEN}$-$\mathrm{EWS}$ category

$\mathrm{GEN}$-$\mathrm{EWS}$ certificate ($\mathrm{FORM}$-$\mathrm{GEN}$-$\mathrm{EWS}$) should have been issued on or after April 01, 2023 in consonance with the latest guidelines of the Government of India. If any $\mathrm{GEN}$-$\mathrm{EWS}$ candidate fails to submit the GEN-EWS certificate (issued on or after April 01, 2023) at the time of online registration, the candidate has to upload a declaration (Declaration in Lieu of $\mathrm{GEN}$-$\mathrm{EWS}$ Certificate) to that effect.

For Candidates seeking admission under the $\mathrm{OBC}$-$\mathrm{NCL}$ category

$\mathrm{OBC}$-$\mathrm{NCL}$ certificate ($\mathrm{FORM}$-$\mathrm{OBC}$-$\mathrm{NCL}$) should have been issued on or after April 01, 2023 in consonance with the latest guidelines of the Government of India. If any $\mathrm{OBC}-\mathrm{NCL}$ candidate fails to submit the OBC-NCL certificate (issued on or after April 01,2023) at the time of online registration, the candidate has to upload a declaration (Declaration in Lieu of $\mathrm{OBC}-\mathrm{NCL}$  Certificate) to that effect. Visit http://www.ncbc.nic.in for latest guidelines and updates on the Central List of State-wise $\mathrm{OBCs}$.

For Candidates seeking admission under the $\mathrm{SC}$ or $\mathrm{SC}$ category

Caste (for $\mathrm{SC}$) or tribe (for $\mathrm{ST}$) certificate ($\mathrm{FORM}$-$\mathrm{SC}$/$\mathrm{ST}$), as per the latest guidelines of the Government of India.

For Candidates seeking admission under the $\mathrm{PwD}$ category

Physical Disability certificate ($\mathrm{FORM}$-$\mathrm{PwD}$ [I/III/IV, whichever is applicable]) issued by the notified medical authority.

Dyslexic candidate needs to submit $\mathrm{FORM}$-$\mathrm{DYSLEXIC}$ 1 and 2 instead of $\mathrm{FORM}$-$\mathrm{PwD}$. The certificate must mention ‘SEVERE’ under Dyslexia category to enable the candidate to get the benefit of $\mathrm{PwD}$ category.

Individual IITs constitute medical boards at the time of admission to test the candidate’s level of disability. The opinion of such medical board shall be final and on this basis, the benefit of $\mathrm{PwD}$ category may be allowed or withheld. If the benefit is withheld, the admission to the concerned IIT may be cancelled.

For candidates opting for compensatory time

Letter to the Chairman of the nearest Zonal Coordinating IIT by filling FORM-COMPENSATORY TIME along with the copy of the Disability Certificate.

If it is found at any stage that a candidate has availed of compensatory time, but does not possess the extent of disability that warrants the same, the candidate will be excluded from the process of evaluation, ranking and admission. In case such a candidate has already been admitted to any IIT, the admission of the candidate will be cancelled.

For Candidates needing the services of a scribe

Request letter to the Chairman of the nearest Zonal coordinating IIT by filling $\mathrm{FORM}$-$\mathrm{SCRIBE}$.

If it is found at any stage that a candidate has availed of the services of a scribe, but does not possess the extent of disability that warrants the same, the candidate will be excluded from the process of evaluation, ranking and admission. In case such a candidate has already been admitted to any IIT, the admission of the candidate will be cancelled.

For Candidates seeking admission under the DS category (As per letter No. 321/Adm/Misc/Vol-I, dated 22 October, 2020)

Certificate (FORM-DS) issued by respective record offices of Armed Forces Personnel.

Foreign national candidates should visit the link:

https://jeeadv.ac.in/foreign.php

For candidates whose Class XII Examination Board is outside India [EXAMINATIONS CONSIDERED EQUIVALENT TO CLASS XII]:

A certificate from the Association of Indian Universities to the effect that the examination qualified by the candidate is equivalent to the Class XII examination.

ADMIT CARD

Candidates who success fully registered for JEE (Advanced) 2023 can download the admit card from the online registration portal: https://jeeadv.ac.in

Admit card downloading scheduleTo be Notified

The admit card will bear the following details of the candidate: Name, Roll number for JEE (Advanced) 2023, photograph, signature, date of birth, address for correspondence and category.

In addition, the admit card will have the name and address of the examination centre allotted to the candidate.

Candidates should carefully examine the entries in the admit card and in case of any discrepancy, they should contact the Chairman, JEE (Advanced) 2023 of the respective Zonal coordinating IIT.

In case of any problem in downloading the admit card, the candidate should immediately contact the Zonal Chairman, JEE (Advanced) 2023.

A printout of the downloaded admit card and a valid ORIGINAL photo identity card (any one of the following: Aadhaar Card, School/College/Institute ID, Driving License, Voter ID, Passport, PAN Card, Notarized Certificate with photograph) MUST be produced at the time of the examination, without which, the candidate will not be allowed to appear for the examination.

CITIES AND TOWNS WHERE JEE (ADVANCED) 2023 WILL BE HELD

JEE (Advanced) 2023 will be held in selected cities and towns in India only. Candidates have to compulsorily choose eight (8) cities/towns of their choice at the time of online registration. Efforts will be made to allot the city/town from among the candidate’s choice but a different city/town may be allotted under exceptional circumstances. Request for change of city/town will NOT be entertained under any circumstances. The final list of examination cities/towns would be notified in the registration portal before the start of the online JEE (Advanced) 2023 registration.

Candidates MUST carry a printed copy of the downloaded admit card and their valid original photo identity card (any one of the following: Aadhaar Card, School/College/Institute ID, Driving License, Voter ID, Passport, PAN Card, Notarized Certificate with photograph) for the examination. Only candidates having a valid admit card and photo identity card will be allowed to write the examination.

The candidate’s identity will be verified at the examination centre by invigilators as well as IIT representatives. If the identity of the candidate is in doubt, the candidate may not be allowed to appear for the examination. However, the IIT authorities at their discretion may provisionally permit the candidate to appear for the examination after completing certain formalities. No extra time will be allowed for completing the examination in lieu of the time taken for completing these formalities. In such cases where the candidate is permitted to provisionally appear for the examination, the decision of the Organising Chairman, JEE (Advanced) 2023 on the issue, shall be final.

Impersonation and/or use of unfair means in the examination are considered as serious offences and will lead to disqualification of one’s candidature from JEE (Advanced) 2023 and all admission related processes. It may also lead to legal action against such candidates.

Only pens, pencils, drinking water in transparent bottle, downloaded admit card and an original photo identity card are allowed to be taken inside the examination hall. A candidate may carry/wear simple analog watch. The following items will NOT be allowed inside the examination centre: smart/digital/programmable watches, mobile phones, Bluetooth devices, earphones, microphones, pagers, health bands or any other electronic gadgets, any printed/blank/hand written paper, log tables, writing pads, scales, geometry/pencil-boxes, pouches, calculators, pen drives, electronic pens, wallets, handbags, goggles or similar such items. Candidates are advised NOT to wear charm/taweez, items containing metals such as ring, bracelet, earrings, nose pin, chain/necklace, pendant, badge, brooch, clothes with big buttons. They are also advised to wear open footwear like chappals and sandals.

Candidates are strongly advised to bring drinking water in a transparent bottle.

Candidates MUST wear mask and carry hand sanitizer (up to 50 ml in a transparent bottle).

Candidates must report to the examination centres well in advance, and carry out the requisite formalities which will be mentioned in the admit card. Examination centres shall remain open from 07:00 IST. Candidates arriving at the examination centre after commencement of the examination in each paper (09:00 IST for Paper 1 and 14:30 IST for Paper 2) will not be allowed to take the examination under any circumstances. The main entrance of the examination centre will be closed at 9:00 hrs (IST) for Paper 1 and at 14:30 hrs (IST) for Paper 2.

Candidates are required to be present in the examination hall for the entire duration of each paper. They CANNOT leave the examination hall before 12:00 IST for Paper 1 and before 17:30 IST for Paper 2.

Appearing in both Paper 1 and Paper 2 is compulsory. Therefore, the responses of ONLY those candidates who have appeared for both Paper 1 and Paper 2 will be evaluated/graded.

In case the COVID pandemic situation persists during JEE (Advanced) 2023 all the Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) related to maintaining social distancing etc., as directed by the Central and State Government as well as the local authorities, must be strictly followed.

TRANSMISSION OF CANDIDATE RESPONSES AND ONLINE DISPLAY OF ANSWER KEYS

  • The responses of the candidates who have appeared for BOTH Paper 1 and Paper 2, recorded during the exam, will be available for viewing, downloading and printing from the JEE(Advanced) 2023 candidate portal (to visit candidate portal, refer to https://jeeadv.ac.in).
  • Provisional answer key is ONLY tentative and is subject to change.
  • The provisional answer keys for both Paper 1 and Paper 2 will be displayed on the JEE (Advanced) 2023 online portal. After the display of provisional answer keys, the candidates may submit their feedback, if any, on the candidate portal.
  • The final answer keys will be displayed on the website, after considering the candidates’ feedbacks, as per the following schedule. The marks will be awarded in accordance with the final answer keys.
Copy of candidate responses to be available on the JEE (Advanced) 2021 website: https://jeeadv.ac.inTo be notified soon
Online display of provisional answer keys on https://jeeadv.ac.inTo be notified soon
Receiving feedback from candidates on provisional answer keys through candidate portalTo be notified soon
Online display of final answer keys on https://jeeadv.ac.inTo be notified soon

RANK LIST

Only candidates who appear for BOTH Paper 1 and Paper 2 will be considered for ranking.

  • The marks obtained by a candidate in Physics in JEE (Advanced) 2023 will be equal to the marks scored in the Physics part of Paper 1 plus the marks scored in the Physics part of Paper 2. Marks obtained in Chemistry and Mathematics will be calculated in the same way.
  • The aggregate marks obtained by a candidate in JEE (Advanced) 2023 will be the sum of the marks awarded to the candidate in Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics.
  • Rank lists are prepared based on the aggregate marks in JEE (Advanced) 2023.
  • If the aggregate marks scored by two or more candidates are the same, then the following tie-break policy will be used for awarding ranks:

Step 1: Candidates having higher positive marks will be awarded higher rank.

If the tie breaking criterion at Step 1 fails to break the tie, then the following criterion at Step 2 will be followed.

Step 2: Higher rank will be assigned to the candidate who has obtained higher marks in Mathematics. If this does not break the tie, higher rank will be assigned to the candidate who has obtained higher marks in Physics. If there is a tie even after this, candidates will be assigned the same rank.

  • Rank lists for preparatory courses will be prepared for $\mathrm{SC}$, $\mathrm{ST}$, and $\mathrm{PwD} candidates in all categories who satisfy the prescribed relaxed criteria given below.
  • A candidate who qualifies in more than one category will be considered in all the categories to which he/she belongs for the purpose of ranking.
  • There will be no waiting list for ranking.
  • Only those candidates who score the minimum prescribed marks in each subject

and also in aggregate will be included in the rank list. The minimum prescribed marks vary with the category as shown in the following table.

Minimum percentage of marks prescribed for inclusion in the rank list

Rank ListMinimum percentage of marks in each subjectMinimum percentage of aggregate marks
Common rank list (CRL)

10.0

35.0

GEN-EWS rank list

9.0

31.5

OBC-NCL rank list

9.0

31.5

SC rank list

5.0

17.5

ST rank list5.0

17.5

Common-PwD rank list (CRL-PwD)

5.0

17.5

GEN-EWS-PwD rank list

5.0

17.5

OBC-NCL-PwD rank list

5.0

17.5

SC-PwD rank list

5.0

17.5

ST-PwD rank list

5.0

17.5

Preparatory course rank lists

2.5

8.75

NOTE: (i) CRL is the rank list in which all candidates (across all categories) will be given ranks. (ii) Minimum percentage of aggregate marks may be lowered subsequently, if required, as per the MHRD directive (F. No. 28-8/2017-T.S.-I) dated June 13, 2018.

RESULTS OF JEE (ADVANCED) 2023

  • The date of the result will be notified soon. Category-wise All India Ranks (AIR) of successful candidates will be available through the JEE (Advanced) 2023 online portal after the results are declared. Text messages will also be sent to the candidates’ registered mobile numbers.
  • Individual rank cards will NOT be sent to candidates.
  • Qualifying in JEE (Advanced) 2023, filling in choices and/or participating in the joint seat allocation process do not guarantee a candidate admission to IITs. Admission will depend on merit and the availability of seats during various rounds of seat allocation.

ARCHITECTURE APTITUDE TEST FOR B. ARCH. PROGRAM

  • B. Arch. program is available at IIT (BHU) Varanasi, IIT Kharagpur and IIT Roorkee only. Candidates desirous of joining the B. Arch. (Architecture) program will have to PASS the Architecture Aptitude Test (AAT). Only those candidates who have qualified in JEE (Advanced) 2023 are eligible to appear in AAT 2023.
  • Apart from passing the Architecture Aptitude Test (AAT), the criterion of performance in Class XII (or equivalent) board examination  will remain the same for admission to B. Arch. Program.
  • Candidates must register online at the JEE (Advanced) 2023 online portal for

AAT as per the time schedule set out below.

  • AAT will be conducted at all 23 IITs.
  • The test will consist of one paper of three hours duration.
  • The question paper for AAT will be available only in the English language.
  • No separate admit card will be issued for AAT. The downloaded admit card of

JEE (Advanced) 2023 has to be printed and produced in the AAT examination

hall, along with original photo identity card.

  • Candidates should bring their own drawing and colouring aids.
  • The Joint Implementation Committee of JEE (Advanced) 2023 will decide the

cut-off marks for passing AAT.

  • Results of AAT will be declared on the JEE (Advanced) 2023 online portal.
  • Candidates securing marks above the cut-off will be declared PASS in the test. There is no separate ranking in the AAT. There is no separate cut-off for students of any category.
  • Allotment of seat will be solely based on the category-wise All India Rank in the JEE (Advanced) 2023 and B. Arch. program will be offered only to those candidates declared PASS in the AAT.

 

 

Schedule of AAT

Portal for AAT Registrationhttps://jeeadv.ac.in
Online registration for AATTo be notified soon
Architecture Aptitude TestTo be notified soon
Declaration of AAT ResultsTo be notified soon

JOINT SEAT ALLOCATION

  • The seats across IITs, NITs, IIITs and other Govt. Funded Technical Institutes (GFTIs) will be offered and allocated through a common process by the Joint Seat Allocation Authority (JoSAA), to be held in online mode for the current year.
  • Candidate who secured Rank in JEE (Advanced) 2023 are eligible to participate in Joint Seat Allocation process for seats in IITs.
  • All the candidates who are eligible for admission will have to participate in the joint seat allocation process by filling in their preferential choices of the courses and institutes.
  • The detailed instructions for filling-in the choices and the seat allotment procedure will be made available by JoSAA through Seat Allotment Business Rules Brochure.
  • The schedule of the joint seat allocation will be announced separately by JoSAA 2023.
  • The list of courses that will be offered by the IITs for admission for the academic year 2023-24 will be made available at the time of online filling-in of choices.
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